From www.5-color.com
When mulliganing, if Player A mulligans, Player B is allowed to mulligan without using up his "mulligan". On the next hand, if Player B mulligans, is Player A also allowed to mulligan in response like B was able to do to A?
How did the "Having No Permanents" rule come about?
When mulliganing, if Player A mulligans, Player B is allowed to mulligan without using up his "mulligan". On the next hand, if Player B mulligans, is Player A also allowed to mulligan in response like B was able to do to A?
How did the "Having No Permanents" rule come about?